More on the 2nd Amendment & Gun Control


 

My December 29th post “What Now for the 2nd Amendment and Gun Control?” …

https://freelegaladvice.wordpress.com/2012/12/29/what-now-for-the-second-amendment-gun-control/

… motivated a lengthy and somewhat contentious email conversation among my West Point classmates.  There are several aspects of that conversation which I will address in my blog over the next few days, starting with some perceptive and pertinent comments and questions by Terry Atkinson.

First, Terry commented:  The logic behind the belief that the 2d amendment’s protection of an individual’s right to own arms is limitless eludes me. If one truly believes that, as Jim states fairly unequivocally in his blog discussion, then it must follow that ‘arms’ such as M109 howitzers  enjoy the same protection as handguns or semiautomatic weapons. It seems to me, however, that the logic would also cover such weapons as nuclear weapons and, let’s say, B-1 bomber delivery systems. If, indeed, you all belief that, it seems to me that your logic fails the common sense test.  I can’t imagine any country that allows its citizens unfettered access to say nukes, thousand pound bombs, napalm canisters, sarin gas canisters, cobra gunships with flechette rockets, or any number of mass-killing weapons would last.

Actually, my “strict construction” view of the 2nd Amendment does not envision a “limitless” right to own weapons.  In fact, a strict construction reading of the amendment’s language makes clear that it does not apply to modern warfare weapons such as howitzers, nukes and bombers.

A thorough analysis of the 2nd Amendment requires a thorough review and understanding of the amendment’s language and what that language meant at the time it was ratified.  To be a “strict constructionist”, one must strictly construe the entirety of the particular constitutional provision being discussed.  Therefore, to respond to Terry’s first point, it is primarily necessary to understand what the term “to keep and bear arms” meant when the 2nd Amendment was ratified in 1791.

First and most important, what did the word “arms” mean at that time?  Historical commentary and arguments both for and against the adoption of this amendment make it clear that by “arms”, the author of the Bill of Rights (James Madison), and those who voted to ratify it, meant weapons that were neither designed for military use nor typically put to such use.  By “arms”, the amendment was intended to refer to personal weapons, such as pistols, rifles and shotguns.  It clearly was not intended to refer to military-style, 18th century artillery pieces and, by analogy, cannot now be thought to refer to the 21st century successors to such military weapons.

The phrase “to keep and bear” arms confirms this interpretation.  To “keep … arms”, of course, means nothing more than to be able to have them in one’s possession.  At the writing of the 2nd Amendment, “to bear” meant “to carry”.  Although that term is now somewhat archaic, it clearly refers to weapons which an individual could carry with him on his person.

Thus, the phrase “to keep and bear arms” meant (and means) that the government cannot infringe “the right of the people to have and carry personal weapons such as pistols, rifles and shotguns”.

This would currently exclude from constitutional protection such weapons as fighter aircraft, naval ships and weapons, artillery pieces, napalm, nukes & other bombs, as well as even such lesser weapons as 50 caliber machine guns, shoulder mounted rocket launchers, flamethrowers, hand grenades and most other military-style weapons.

The US Supreme Court holding in District of Columbia v. Heller, 554 U.S. 570 (2008), reached the same conclusions.  The court in Heller said that the previous Supreme Court decision United States v. Miller, 307 U.S. 174 (1939), did not “limit the right to keep and bear arms to militia purposes, but rather limits the type of weapon to which the right applies to those used by the militia, i.e., those in common use for lawful purposes”.  The court went on to find support for this conclusion in what it called the “historical tradition” of prohibiting the carrying of  “dangerous and unusual” weapons.

Terry’s second comment:  If you don’t believe that nukes and these other weapons enjoy the protection of the 2d amendment, then it seems to me you are recognizing a limitation to the amendment — a limitation that does not appear to be written into the ‘strict constructionist’s’ reading of the amendment. Logic then suggests that there ARE limits to the constitutional right based on ‘reasonableness’ or current conditions or changing societal mores or something. If true, it seems to me the issue is no longer whether the 2d amendment prevents the government from restricting arms ownership but rather a question of where the line of reasonableness is drawn. This, IMO, is an entirely different argument and one that I can understand.

As should be clear from my preceding comments, I do not believe that nukes and other military weapons are protected by the 2nd Amendment.  I disagree, however, with Terry’s conclusion that this implies a “limitation” on the 2nd Amendment’s protections.  Rather, my “strict construction” interpretation of that amendment is that such weapons were not then and were never intended to be covered by the 2nd Amendment.  A true “strict construction” of the amendment still leads to the conclusion that the government cannot infringe on “the right of the people to keep and bear arms”, within the original meaning of that language.  This reading has nothing to do with “reasonableness”, current conditions or changing societal mores.

Nevertheless, the end result is, with respect to military style weaponry, the same and it appears that Terry & I agree that the government can constitutionally restrict individual access to, or possession and use of, such weapons.

Terry’s third point was in the form of a question, and a very good one, at that:  Where in the 2nd amendment or constitution for that matter does it state that the rights stated therein do not cover persons who have committed crimes or are diagnosed with mental illnesses? My “strict interpretation” of the Constitution tells me that anyone can own a weapon whether they have a criminal past or not. Isn’t that right?

Answering this question requires further analysis — initially, what governmental action would “infringe” on the individual’s right to bear arms?  Or, in simpler terms, what did (does) the word “infringe” mean?

The oldest definition I can find is from Webster’s Dictionary of 1828, which likely reflects fairly closely what the word meant in 1791:

1.     To break, as contracts; to violate, either positively by contravention, or negatively by non-fulfillment or neglect of performance. A prince or a private person infringes an agreement or covenant by neglecting to perform its conditions, as well as by doing what is stipulated not to be done.
2.     To break; to violate; to transgress; to neglect to fulfill or obey; as, to infringe a law.

With this meaning of “infringe”, a “strict construction” interpretation of the 2nd Amendment would be that the government cannot “break or violate” (or perhaps “deny”, as in “neglect to fulfill”) “the right of the people to have and carry personal weapons such as pistols, rifles and shotguns”.

What the 2nd Amendment itself does not address, however, and what must then be considered both in terms of the contemporaneous understanding of what the amendment meant and what it must be understood to mean now is whether or not, and if so, how a particular person can lose his constitutional rights, including his “right to keep and bear arms”.

Although neither the Bill of Rights nor the Constitution proper address that possibility, there are constitutional provisions which provide guidance in this regard.  Article I, section 8,  and Article III, section 3, empower Congress to define certain federal crimes and to establish the punishment to be imposed for violations thereof.  Article III, section 2, and Article IV, section 2, acknowledge that the states have the authority to define crimes and punishments.  Furthermore, it is clear that all of the Founding Fathers of this country, and probably the vast majority of the populace, recognized that the government could revoke even the “inalienable rights” of the people by fining, imprisoning or, in extreme cases, executing those who violated the laws of the country or the states.

Clearly, the right to “life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness” could be forfeited by those who committed crimes.  There is neither any logical reason nor any historical interpretation by which it could be concluded that the 2nd Amendment “right to keep and bear arms” was somehow exempted from forfeiture as a result of a sufficiently serious criminal conviction.  Nor is there any logical reason to conclude that this right cannot now be forfeited for the same reason.

Thus, as a general proposition, a person who has committed a sufficiently serious (felony) crime no longer has a right to keep and bear arms to be infringed.  And governmental restriction of that person’s access to firearms or other weapons would not violate the 2nd Amendment.

I do have personal reservations about the constitutionality of the extensions of this concept being enacted by some states, including denial of access to firearms based on misdemeanor criminal convictions, such as domestic violence.  That, however, is really a subject for a separate discussion at another time.

With respect to the remainder of Terry’s question in this regard, the issue of denying 2nd Amendment rights to people suffering from mental illnesses is constitutionally troublesome.  There is nothing in the Constitution by which it can be inferred that either the federal or state governments have lawful authority to revoke the rights of a person due to mental illness.

Nevertheless, it was common practice in the 1700s and early 1800s for local government to confine the mentally ill to either jails or poorhouses.  Since the Constitution does not otherwise address the issue, it must be understood in the context of the times.  The implication of this historical perspective, of course, is that the mentally ill could, on that basis alone, lose some or all of their “rights”.  Presumably, Madison and those who ratified the Constitution and the Bill of Rights, were aware of this common practice and had it in mind when formulating and ratifying those documents.

Therefore, a strict construction of the 2nd Amendment would also require that it be understood in that context.  Which means that the mentally ill, like convicted felons, can be thought of as not having any 2nd Amendment right to be infringed by governmental action.

There are, of course, other issues with respect to the 2nd Amendment, such as whether or not licensing requirements and concealed carry restrictions are constitutional or whether it is constitutionally permissible to restrict the carrying of weapons into certain places (such as public buildings).  And there is the question of whether gun control is a meaningful and effective way of dealing with the problem to begin with.  I will address some of these issues in future blog posts.

__________________________________________

The full 157 page opinion of the Supreme Court in District of Columbia v. Heller, 554 U.S. 570 (2008), is available here:

http://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/07pdf/07-290.pdf

The Supreme Court decision in United States v. Miller, 307 U.S. 174 (1939), is available here:

http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/historics/USSC_CR_0307_0174_ZO.html

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5 thoughts on “More on the 2nd Amendment & Gun Control

  1. Jim, I am happy … no thrilled … that the law and common sense align. Great article and I learned a lot. Still learning …. Mike

  2. Pingback: Free Legal Advice Isn't Worth What You Pay For It …

  3. Pingback: Ongoing Debate re 2nd Amendment & Gun Control « Free Legal Advice Isn't Worth What You Pay For It …

  4. Pingback: Summary of 2nd Amendment & Gun Control Posts | Free Legal Advice Isn't Worth What You Pay For It ...

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